Finite Induction

Axioms and Ordinals, Finite Induction

Finite Induction

You've probably seen finite induction before.  If f(n) implies f(n+1), and f(0) is true, then f(n) is true for all n ≥ 0.  This is obvious!  But in the world of set theory, you have to prove it, or assert it as an axiom.  By choosing a least ordinal, we can now prove induction.

First a lemma.  Let S be a finite ordinal with T ∈ S.  We know T is an ordinal, since it belongs to an ordinal.  Since S is finite it contains no limit ordinals, hence T is not a limit ordinal.  It is 0 or a successor ordinal.  If T contains a limit ordinal then so does S by transitivity, so T contains no limit ordinals.  Therefore T, an arbitrary member of S, is a finite ordinal.

Let f be a formula with one free parameter.  Assume f(successor(S)) is true whenever f(S) is true and S is a finite ordinal.  Also let f(0) be true.

Suppose S is a finite ordinal such that f(S) is false.  We know S is nonzero, since f(0) is true.  Let S be the successor of T.  If f(T) is true then f(S) is true, hence there are members of S where f() fails.  Restrict S to the elements T such that f(T) fails, and call this new set W.  This is a nonempty set of ordinals; let z be the least of these.  We know z is nonzero, since f(0) is true.  Thus z = successor(y) for some y, and f(y) is true.  By the above lemma y is a finite ordinal, and f(y) implies f(successor(y)), hence f(z) is true.  This is the inductive step.

we assumed f(S) was false and derived a contradiction.  Therefore f(S) is true for all finite ordinals.  Induction is valid, and can be used to prove various properties of finite sets, such as the pigeonhole principle.